1 Corinthians 14:34-40
34 Women[f] should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. 35 If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.[g]
36 Or did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? 37 If anyone thinks they are a prophet or otherwise gifted by the Spirit, let them acknowledge that what I am writing to you is the Lord’s command. 38 But if anyone ignores this, they will themselves be ignored.[h]
39 Therefore, my brothers and sisters, be eager to prophesy, and do not forbid speaking in tongues. 40 But everything should be done in a fitting and orderly way.
Today we arrive at one of the most challenging verses within the letter. Here Paul says that women must remain silent in church, which not only means that women should not be included in ordained ministry but should not be included in the spiritual aspects of the community. Not only, this the says that ‘if they want to inquire… they should ask their husbands,’ which is incredibly patronising and disempowering.
This verse is also confusing as just a few chapters before he spoke about women covering their heads ‘when they prophesy’ (11:3-5) and in 14:24 he says that all should come with a word, hymn or prophecy. This is the same man who taught that there is not Jew of Gentile, male or female.
In the Gospels, we often find Jesus speaking with women about about spiritual matters and trusting them to share with others. This doesn’t feel like it fits the flow or scriptures.
The confusion is added when you consider his reasoning. He says that they should be submissive, ‘as the law says.’ Which would make you assume that he is reinforcing an Old Testament command. However, there is no verse in the Law or the teachings of Jesus which says this. So, what is going on here?
Kirk MacGregor argues that these differences are a moment when Paul is quoting the arguments of the Corinthians and showing them to be false. So it could be read like this:
Here’s an example of how he says that it could be read …
[You, Corinthian men say,] “As (Hōs) in all the assemblies of the saints, the women should keep silent in the assemblies; for they (autais, feminine plural) are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, just as the Law says. But if they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is shameful for women to speak in an assembly.”
[Paul replies,] Or (ē) did the word of God originate with you (hymas, plural.), or (ē) to you men only (hymas monous, masculine plural) has it come? If anyone seems to be a prophet or spiritual, let that one recognize that what I write to you (pl.) is a commandment of the Lord; but if anyone disregards this, let that one be disregarded.”
His conclusion is:
“Far from attempting to silence women, therefore, Paul was rebuking the Corinthian men for prohibiting women from speaking in the assemblies, as he regarded such a restriction as tantamount to alleging that the Word of God belonged properly to the men and merely derivatively to any woman who was married to one of them. Paul summarily exposed the absurdity of this allegation with each part of the rhetorical question, whose form (not to mention the context) required a negative answer to each part.”
What do you think? Does this resolve the problems of the text for you?
